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soonenough1111
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Posted 8 Months ago #1
Maybe it's because the writer of the piece is a Brit, although I didn't think that even they still used the old meaning of the word, and even then I doubt they'd be confused by the common American use.

Friedrich Hayek was forced to explain his use of the word 'liberal' in the foreword of his book 'The Road to Serfdom':

'I use throughout the term 'liberal' in the original, nineteenth-century sense in which it is still current [1944] in Britain. In current American usage it often means very nearly the opposite of this. It has been part of the camouflage of leftist movements in this country, helped by the muddle-headedness of many who really believe in liberty, that 'liberal' has come to mean the advocacy of almost every kind of government control.'
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